Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 20.06.2025 14:17
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Why am I sweating so much when I try to do anything?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Atheists who have read the Bible and think that contains immoral things, why do you assume that?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.